update: solved!
According to the dumbass ancient Greeks yes Indians are Asian even though I think its unfair that various distinct peoples are lumped together into a huge zone on the map called ‘ASIA’ just because the idiotic Greeks didnt know what lied to the West of Europe and just called everything from there on ‘ASIA’.
As for your question, I think Indians produce high -none.
Although Indians reside in Asia, they are part of the Caucasian racial classification. They are racially distinct from EAst Asians or the Mongoloid racial classification. Whatever, like Jankren indicated, they produce and respond to androstenone really well. I suspect even more so than most White folks. If you run track, are Indian and are only 17, you probably produce friggen buckets of natural androstenone. I wouldn’t add any. Tell no! Stick with TAA, androstenol and maybe a dash of androsterone.
I have to agree with Gegoggi.
The ancestors of the northern Indian tribes were a nomadic people who came from somewhere around Poland and areas south of Poland. One portion of these tribes moved west and became the ancestors of the Greeks, Romans, Teutons, and Celts. Another group moved South and became the ancestors of the Persians. Another group moved east and became the Hittites, later, Slavic peoples.
Originally these tribes refered to themselves as Eryan, or Aryan (or Iran). Eryan means “The People” in the ancient Persian language, and is written on the oldest surviving clay scroll found in Iran. And when Persia gained her independence in 1935, it changed the name from Persia to Iran because of the ancient meaning of the word.
Around the time the Aryans settled into Persia, a portion of these tribes also pushed through the Hindu Kush mountains, moved through Afghanistan and began to conquer and settle Northern India. Soon they had conquered the majority of the northern part of the sub-continent and they referred to the conquered area as Aryavarta, or “Aryan Land.” The conquering and settling of all of northern India happened between 2500 and 3500 years ago.
Today most Indians are of Dravidian and Indo-Aryan descent.
There is some speculation that the original inhabitants of India (who were pushed out and conquered by the Indo-Aryan tribes) were descended from Australian peoples who had become sea-faring nomads. They also may be the ancestors of the peoples of Malaysia. These people may have also pushed west and south and settled the Arabian peninsula and northeastern Africa. But if that speculation turns out to be true, it happened long before the Aryan tribes pushed into India. It is kind of counter intuitive since it would have made more sense for peoples from northeastern Africa to have migrated east, settling the coastline around the Indian Ocean, and finally settling Malaysia and finally Australia. And maybe that was originally true. But there is a lot of compelling evidence that this “reverse” migration actually happened. Anyway, it is just a puzzle.
American Indians are of Mongolian decent most likely, having migrated to the North American continent approximately 8,000 - 10,000 years ago. That is a long time for genetic diversification from their root stock even if you consider Mongolians to be Asian and not their own unique root stock. I’m not sure about that, and generally lean towards them being separate genetic stock. But I’m sure someone on this forum of gifted people would have more information that could possibly shed some light on it, including Gegoggi.
It is funny that this topic came up, as I was just looking at the ancient history of Iran just two nights ago to satisfy a curiosity I had. I love synchronicity.
Diane
Ok sorry for derailing but I had to ask…
Is the OP saying his ancestors are from India or that he is Native American (they have all been suggested to be originally from Asia).
At first I thought he was saying he was a Native American but then I reread it as him saying he was an Indian American (as in his family being from India).
Now I am just totally confused.
Scorp good luck on your venture!! 
ughh i get so annoyed when people call native americans “Indians”. They only started calling them that because columbus thought he had landed in india! which we know he really didnt!
Anyway, thanks for the really indepth analysis diane, i really liked it.
And yes, i am an American Born Indian American with parents from India
Awesome! I’m of Eastern Band Cherokee (and many other) Native American descent on my father’s side. I don’t care what they call me as long as it is respectful.
Diane
Thats true, but the thing is, i just wish people would distinguish it. I mean it seems like my race is never asian and at the same time people consider it indian, which makes me feel like we have no identity while as native americans, such as you, do. I didnt mean to be offensive or anything, its just how i feel
Metis here… I find I get really cranky when I dose myself with 'none and no buffers…
I don’t freak girls out with lots of none however…
Well, I certainly understand your feelings on this, and I hate the confusion it causes too.
But we are talking about 500 years of confusion… and that is hard to break. For Native Americans maybe it is even worse. Cherokee, Souix, Cheyenne, Blackfoot, Crow, Apache, Iroquois, Chipewyan, Seneca, Shawnee, Seminole, Wichita, Salish, Nez Perce, Klickitat, Cree, Dakota, Chinook, Mojave, Pueblo, and so many more I can’t list them all… all our identities were basically lost in time, replaced with a name that has no bearing at all.
Diane
Diane, when you are discussing events of this age, you have to take into account the “Younger Dryas” event, considered a “bottle neck” event. This is when the mega-fauna (woolly mammoths etc.) were wiped out and the human race is thought to have been reduced to a couple of thousand world wide, wiping out a great deal of genetic diversification. This could have had a great impact on genetic diversification and explain your “reverse migration”. The migration to the Americas probably occurred during the glacial retreat and it is thought that Asians and Europeans (later) both migrated and intermingled though there were more Asians present.
Thanks, Mtnjim.
Diane
Errr I feel like Im breaking rules lol but it seems this thread has taken on two different subjects.
See I do know the difference. I never call Native Americans “Indians”, I hope most of us learned the history of Columbus (a sad tragedy, understatement). It always confuses me, because I dont associate Native Americans as Indians, that term to me belongs to people from or of India/n heritage.
I live in New Mexico, which has a large population of Native Americans.
I also have a son who is part Native American. His biological father is 3/4ths Native American (part sioux for sure other Native American heritage unknown, my son’s bio left before he was born) and a quarter Irish.
We have no “proof” so it makes it hard to get him involved any thing involving Native American children and learning about that part of his heritage, but I digress.
So anyway I just wanted to explain myself. Apparently Im not so good at reading all of Diane’s history lessons. :o
I never meant any disrespect.
Oh… hahaha… none taken! Actually my father was 3/4 Eastern Band Cherokee and 1/4 German. My mother was 1/2 English and 1/2 Jewish. My former husband is half Black Foot/half Crow. My current husband is 100% Scottish. I guess it would be appropriate to call me and the children… mutts… or Americans… or something.
I’ve been asked if I’m Spanish or Japanese in the past, which is just wild. I’m pale as a down feather and I have green eyes. LOLZ 
Diane
so umm back to the topic. do high levels of -none repel girls? cause i dont see it working haha
Being an Indian…
- We already produce a gallon of none.
- High level of none do no repeal indian women.
- ifm works wonders for indian women.
What I wrote above is a generalization.. every one is unique but then again we are quite the same 
but i live in the U.S and i grew up with pretty much a variety of all cultures. i dont see it working insanely xD