Need math help

I purchased a putative that is a 12.5 mcg/spray. I need to dilute it to give me 2.5 mcg/spray. The second part of this is that I don’t have any PA. Would regular cologne be a good substitute? I think that the dilution is 4 parts putative to 1 part PA. Correct?

Close, but you have it backwards. You want 1 part putative to 4 parts of whatever you’re putting it in. Thus, the 12.5mcg of putative in each original spray is now distributed evenly among 5 parts solvent, giving 12.5/5 = 2.5mcg/spray. However, it would be best to mix the solution in a bottle identical to the one the putative is in. So, if it’s a 5mL to-go bottle, combine your putative and cologne in a to-go bottle as well. This is because the concentration per spray is calibrated to the spray size of the bottle it’s in. Another kind of bottle might have a different spray size, and that would throw everything off.

Yes, Vespero I did type it backwards. Thank you so much for the confirmation of the math. My plan was to use a to go bottle to get the right spray amount. Thanks again Vespero!